Helpful Questions for a Quicker Understanding of the "Preview of the Friday Aviv 17 Crucifixion"

Statement of belief: “Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.” (John 17:17 KJV)

Updated 5941(?) 07 26 2027 [2010-10-05]

Helpful Questions

“Preview of the Friday Aviv 17 Crucifixion”

Focusing upon the red font items under “Preview of the Friday Aviv 17 Crucifixion:”

1. Is it at all possible for Yeshua to have been, (1) first crucified at the 3^rd hour of the day, and then, later in the same day, at the 6^th hour stand trial before Pilate? Cf. Mark 15:25 and John 19:13-14! (2) It is commonly believed that Yeshua stood before Pilate on the very same Friday when he was crucified, isn’t it? Alternatively, (3) are we to assume that the inspired word of the New Testament is in error, even in the original Greek version of the Textus Receptus? If your answers to the above questions are “1) No, 2) Yes, 3) No,” respectively, then perhaps it is time to reconsider our traditional way of thinking and thoroughly consider all the facts while looking for an option that is consistent within itself, isn’t it?

2. What’s the point of giving a time reference such as ”after two days,” as used for instance in the KJV of Matt. 26:2 and Mark 14:1, when no beginning of such a time period is identified in the text? Isn’t it much more likely and reasonable that, provided such a translation of the original text is permissible by the Greek language, such words are being used for specifying the day of the week, as in ”after [the first] two days [of the week?]” After all, the Hebrew and Aramaic languages are using no other names for any of the first six days of the week than Day One, Day Two, Day Three, etc., are they? And isn’t Hebrew or Aramaic the language used by the people in Israel and Judea in New Testament times? Cf. Acts 21:40; 22:2; 26:14, John 5:2; 19:17 and Rev. 16:16.

3. Why was Yeshua (later confirmed by Peter and Paul) repeatedly emphasizing to his followers that he was going to arise on “the third day” if in fact he did arise on the first day of the week and not on “the third day” [of the week?] Cf. Matt. 16:21, 17:23, 20:19, 27:64; Mark 9:31, 10:34; Luke 9:22, 13:10, 13-14, 32-33, 18:33, 24:7, 21, 46; John 2:1; Acts 10:40; and 1 Cor. 15:4.

4. Why would Yeshua say, according to Matt. 12:40, “For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth,” if in fact he was dead and buried no more than one day and two nights?

5. Why would Yeshua teach, according to Mark 8:31, that he was going to “be killed, and after three days rise again,” if in fact he did rise, not after, but before two days (9 hours (3PM-mid night) + 24 hours + 6 hours = 39 hours?)

a. Does the bible ever use inclusive reckoning? Or is it the reader of the bible that is superimposing his or her own traditional thinking – as taught by his or her society and culture - upon a bible text? Isn’t it Roman tradition and the Latin language that is using inclusive reckoning? Consider for instance the word “quinquennial" as applied upon the Olympic games: Do those events occur every four years or every five years if they are celebrated in say year 2001 and year 2005?

6. Considering the last three questions, isn’t it much more likely that Yeshua said what he meant and meant what he said? Or else, are we to consider the Holy Scriptures, or at least the New Testament, a book lacking precise meaning as to detail? And what about the words of Yeshua? How far exactly are we to extend our lack of trust as to the precision expressed within the word of God?

7. Referencing the words found in Acts 1:12: “…which is from Jerusalem a Sabbath day’s journey.” What’s the point of referencing a distance in such a unique and unusual way, i.e. in a way not used any other time in the Scriptures, unless the event tied to this passage did occur on a Sabbath? Cf. John 11:18, which text, as far as I am aware, is referencing much the same distance as Acts 1:12!

8. If Acts 1:3 is not lying, and if Yeshua was indeed “being seen of them forty days,” before the conclusion of the events relayed in Acts 1:3-12, and if indeed the events relayed in Acts 1:3-12 took place on a Sabbath, i.e. on the Seventh Day of the week, then on what day of the week must the first day of the forty days have occurred? Am I in error when I count backwards and find that the first of the forty days occurred upon the Third Day of the week, i.e. beginning at sunset Monday night? Or wasn’t Yeshua seen on the day the tomb was opened early on the first of those forty days, actually at the beginning of the first of those forty days?

1^st Day Sunday	2^nd Day Monday	3^rd Day Tuesday	4^th Day Wednesday	5^th Day Thursday	6^th Day Friday	7^th Day Sabbath
		1 Resurrection	2	3	4	5
6	7	8	9	10	11	12
13	14	15	16	17	18	19
20	21	22	23	24	25	26
27	28	29	30	31	32	33
34	35	36	37	38	39	40 Ascension
						Pentecost Acts 2:1

9. Consider carefully Luk 22:66: “And as soon as it was day, the elders of the people and the chief priests and the scribes came together, and led him into their council…” How does this affect the time available for all the events specified in the following question?

10. Re the commonly believed nine (9) hour time frame, counting from about mid night of the experience in the upper room until “the 3^rd hour,” and re the much more limited three (3) hour time frame dictated by Luke 22:66 (as quoted in #9 above:)

What are the odds that three bureaucracies - interacting one with another and without prior preparation, planning, or arrangement - could and would have carried out all of the extensive proceedings against Yeshua within the nine hours between midnight and mid-morning of the very same Friday, and proceedings #2-8 below within 3 hours, i.e. from daybreak through the 3^rd hour, that is, from 6 AM until 9 AM? Remember each of these proceedings:

1. First the mob taking Yeshua prisoner in Gethsemane, then

2. a court trial before the High Priest, then

3. another court trial before Pilate and the Roman authorities, then

4. a third court trial before Herod, then

5. a fourth court trial, the second one, before Pilate and the Roman authorities, and in addition, do not forget!,

6. first the flogging, then

7. the actual walk to Golgatha, and finally

8. the crucifixion procedure itself?

Remember, Pilate and Herod were at odds with one another, and the Jewish Court can hardly be perceived as being in the habit of working in close cooperation with either Pilate or Herod, or can it? Or does the New Testament paint a picture of those three courts, as if they were a tightly knit unit working smoothly hand in hand with one another? Without even taking into consideration the transportation time between each of these eight numbered scenes, which of these eight events, if any, is likely to have taken less than 3/7^th of one hour (3 hours / 7 events,) i.e. less than 26 minutes, to conclude from beginning to end? How likely, or even possible, is a nine hour scenario, such as is commonly perceived as having taken place all within one and the same Friday morning? Is such a nine hour scenario consistent with the Bible?

11. How has it been possible for Anyone or Anything to fool so many Christians for so many years about any one of the above issues, which issues are supposedly of such focal interest to everyone within Christendom? Who is Anyone? What is Anything? What part of the responsibility for this do I, and each and everyone among us, carry upon each our shoulders for such tomfoolery?

12. Who is responsible for allowing such common misconceptions, as above referenced, to flourish, and remain sustained, throughout each of our lives - as well as throughout history? What part responsibility do I, or you, or anyone among us, carry upon each our shoulders for carrying forwards such false gossip to our very own families, to our brethren, and unto anyone within our society? Don’t we have a responsibility to explore the real truth about this particular – especially when, as now, God has made it available to us?

13. Re John 19:14, 31: What exactly is meant by the words “14… it was the preparation of the passover” and “31… for that sabbath day was a high day?” Are those two days necessarily and always consecutive, i.e. one following immediately after the other? That is to say: Is it true that the weekly 7^th Day Sabbath within the seven day Feast of Unleavened Bread always follows immediately upon the 14^th day of the First Moon, Aviv? Is the Bible teaching that the 7^th Day Shabbat of the Waving of the Sheaf is to follow immediately upon the day when preparation for the evening of the sacrifice of the Passover lamb is to be made? What does Leviticus 23:5-8 and Deuteronomy teach re the timing for “the Lord’s passover?” What does Leviticus 23:15-16 teach re the timing of the Waving of the Sheaf and the beginning of the count of fifty days (cf. #‎14 below?)

14. Re #‎13 above: What point in time exactly is pinpointed by the words “the morrow after the sabbath” (Leviticus 23:15, 16?:) Sunday morning or the morning of the 7^th Day Shabbat? When exactly does the 7^th Day Shabbat begin? What does Genesis 1:5 and Leviticus 23:32 teach re the beginning of the Shabbat as well as the beginning of each and every 24 hour day period? When you are at that point of a Sabbath Day, i.e. at the sunset at the very beginning of the Sabbath: What point are you talking about when you say words such as “Tomorrow morning?” What is the relationship between the “night” referenced in Genesis 19:33 and “the morrow” referenced in Genesis 19:34?

15. To understand the true meaning of the Greek words translated, in the KJV, “the first day of the week” you need to use your Strong’s Concordance and Dictionary! Or at least you need to look at some Greek version of the NT! Consider carefully the meaning of each of the three Greek words thus translated! Next, look up the Greek words in the NT that actually means “the First Day” or “Day One” [of the week!] You’ll find these texts in Luke 5:17; 8:22; Acts 21:7; 28:13! What differences do you see between the Greek words used in these last four passages in comparison to the Greek words used in the passages translated in KJV as “the first day of the week?” Next, do you find any passages in the NT translated “the second day of the week,” “the third day of the week,” “the fourth day of the week,” etc.? Why not? On the other hand, if you look for the other days of the week in the Greek NT, using the same format as in Luke 5:17; 8:22; Acts 21:7; 28:13, isn’t it true that you’ll find passages where each and every one of the week days are being specified?!:

· 1^st Day: Luke 5:17; 8:22; Acts 21:7; 28:13;

· 2^nd Day: Matthew 26:2; Mark 14:1; John 4:40, 43; 11:6; Acts 28:13;

· 3^rd Day: Luke 2:46; Acts 25:1; 28:7, 12, 17; plus all the passages listed in item #‎3 above;

· 4^th Day: John 11:17; Acts 10:30;

· 5^th Day: Acts 20:6; 24:1;

· 6^th Day: Matthew 17:1; Mark 9:2; John 12:1;

· 7^th Day: Acts 20:6; 21:4, 5; 21:27; 28:14; Hebrew 11:40; 4:4;

· 8^th day: Luke 1:59; 2:21; 6:6; 9:28; John 20:26; Acts 7:8; 27:3; Philippians 3:5;

· 10^th day [of the month:] Acts 25:6.

Don’t you suppose the Roman Catholic Church would have an incentive not to translate (for instance) Luke 5:17 correctly? If Luke 5:17 was translated such that it was clear that this passage describes events happening on Sunday, the First Day of the week, don’t you think that would be quite a strong waker upper for quite a few Sunday keeping Bible believers? For why is Jesus not being criticized (in Luke 5:17) for healing people on Sabbath if indeed Jesus intended for Christians to keep Sunday as a day of Sabbath rest? Indeed, if any of those four passages re Day One of the week was correctly translated, don’t you think that would be a waker upper for such as could distinguish between the Greek words in those four passages and the Greek words used in the passages translated “the first day of the week” in KJV?

Next: If you carefully study the context of each of the NT passages translated “the first day of the week,” isn’t it true that all but one of them is associated with the Feast of Unleavened Bread? And is there any evidence whatsoever that the one exception is not also referencing the very same day within the Feast of Unleavened bread as each of the other like passages?

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